After posting what I did on
Thursday I got to thinking about the "drunk" thing. I wondered, if it was a translator thing rather than a language thing; if the New Testament would have the same oddities.
Imagine my surprise ...
it did.
Before I get into the New Testament,

I want to expound a bit more on the Old Testament, and what I said yesterday. I think it's good to be clear on the fact that some words
are particularly difficult to translate accurately, especially from Hebrew, because the concepts of those words are so incredibly different from English. It seems sometimes like Hebrew words need phrases, sentences, or even paragraphs to come close at depicting the original intention. However, that being said ... neither the Hebrew word used in the Old Testament for "drunk" nor the Greek word used in the New Testament for "drunk" are this way. Both are quite simple and straightforward.
Also, there is also only one word in each language for drunkenness. Many times (as you may remember from my post about
seasons, and the three different words translated "time" in each language) there may be more than one word that is translated into the same word in English. Again, the same cannot be said of these words. There is only one word in each language, and they both mean only one thing: drunk, as in to be intoxicated with alcohol. "To drink," referring to any liquid, is a completely different word.
There are four basic variations of the Hebrew root "
שכר", depending on what part of speech the root is occupying--noun (2), verb, or adjective--and all directly relate to being drunk. The root, in one of these four forms shows up
58 times in the Old Testament. Out of these 58 times there are
3 verses which are translated something other thank "drunk." (I know I said in the original tidbit post that there were two; well, I found one more.)
[Now as a side study note: I am a fairly exhaustive studier, but there is a limit. I did
not search for all 58 references in all 12+ translations that I mentioned earlier. I would certainly be curious about the outcome, but that is more effort than I have at present. I did search this in NASB, KJV, and ESV, those three being the most espoused as accurate translations.]
All of this means that these 3 instances are significant, because there is literally no reason in the language itself to translate this word something other than "drunk." I am inclined to suppose, then that the reason lay not a sincere effort at accurate translation, but rather an agenda that didn't allow for certain thoughts to be conveyed. I have to say that this is the first time in my personal study that I have seen something this pronounced. Something that I would feel confident in going out on a limb on and saying was a deliberate mistranslation.
The first two references I mentioned in my
previous post:
Genesis 43:34, when Joseph and his brothers got drunk together, and
Song of Solomon 5:1, when the bridegroom is directed to get drunk on the love of his wife. The third is
Haggai 1:6.
“You have sown much, and harvested little. You eat, but you never have enough; you drink, but you never have your fill. You clothe yourselves, but no one is warm. And he who earns wages does so to put them into a bag with holes." [ESV]
This verse is talking about the constant striving of man which feels like it is only after wind. No return on the investment, so to speak. So what is the little phrase cleverly altered here? "You drink, but you never have your fill." And yes, indeed, the Scripture here
actually says,
"you drink, but don't get drunk." Incidentally, there are two of the 12 BLB translations which do translate this as drunk. NASB (you drink, but not enough to become drunk) and Young's Literal Translation (to drink, and not to drunkenness).
So now on to the New Testament.
As previously mentioned, there is only one word in Greek for the idea of being intoxicated, and only one essential translation of the word. Again, there are variations on the root, based on parts of speech, but the meaning remains the same.
The base root is μέθη: methē, meaning intoxication or drunkenness. There are
15 times this root is used in the New Testament, and 14 of them are translated plainly as "drunk." The
1 time it is not is in
John 2:10.
9When the headwaiter tasted the water which had become wine, and did not know where it came from (but the servants who had drawn the water knew), the headwaiter called the bridegroom, and said to him, "Every man serves the good wine first, and when the people have drunk freely, then he serves the poorer wine; but you have kept the good wine until now." [NASB]
Did you guess? Yep, the phrase is "when the people have drunk freely." I don't know Greek, so I can't personally translate this, but according to the inherent meaning of the root, this phrase would read more like
"when the people are drunk." Meaning, among other things, that the everyone was already drunk when Jesus performed his first miracle.
Do you suspect that the general Christian stigma of not drinking alcohol is one of the
sacred cows I'd like to topple? Well, you'd be right. :) Although I don't think I'm on the warpath. But the more I read of Scripture, and the more I study in the original language the more I am convinced that conservative Christianity pulled that one out of it's collective behind.
Any thoughts? Any prickles?